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Pastoral Qualifications


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Trell posted the Scripture that clearly shows that one who marries a divorced person has not sinned. If they have not sinned, they cannot have committed adultery, can they?

Since they have not sinned in their marriage to a divorced woman, the marriage does not disqualify one from the pastorate position.

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Trell posted the Scripture that clearly shows that one who marries a divorced person has not sinned. If they have not sinned, they cannot have committed adultery, can they?

Since they have not sinned in their marriage to a divorced woman, the marriage does not disqualify one from the pastorate position.

That was referring to those who have been divorced because they came to Christ after marriage and the unsaved spouse divorced them. Scripture says otherwise about other divorces and that has been posted as well.
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Paul does not say he is referring to those who have been divorced because they came to Christ. You are reading into Scripture what isn't there.

I'm not sure what you are saying. Forgive me if I've lost track here or am just confused.

In any event, I was only pointing out that Scripture would seem to indicate that if a person is born again while already married and their unsaved spouse divorces them, there is no guilt (sin) on them and if they remarry they would not be committing adultery.

Scripture doesn't clearly state that a man who marries and divorced woman can't be a pastor. Some take the "must be married to one woman" statement to mean that this somehow touches upon that. Others don't. Some look to the individual circumstances and among these are those who look to see if the fornication "exception" or the "saved after married and she divorces exception" applies.

My appologies for being unclear.
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Interesting question and responses. A few items to add, just for understanding. Then some observations.

I heard a man once say "God does not call the qualified. He qualifies the called".

Also, in the culture of the day, physical virginity on the part of the female was so important that the sheets used by the newly married couple were publicly displayed the day after they came together. Fornication is before marriage, and is cause to not be married, because it would be known immediately (by way of the sheets) if she was or was not a virgin, and thus could be put away. But once the sheets were displayed, the consumation was considered final and complete, and a man was not suppose to put away his wife because the sheets 'proved' she had not fornicated.


Sin is sin. Man sometimes likes to think certain sins are worse than others. Except for blasphemy on the one end, and loving God and your neighbor at the other end, this is not the case. Sin is sin. Adultery, murder, stealing, and every other sin are just that - sin.
The consequences may be immediate or delayed, but they will be there.

When a man gets saved, he is a new creation. Old things (including adultery) are passed away. We are complete in Christ. After salvation, sins occur. Regardless of the sin, God can and will forgive him (I Jn 1:9). However, sometimes the consequences are still there. Perhaps divorce, STD's, heart problems, and the like. The man may be forgiven by God, by friends, by his wife, even his children, but consequences may still follow.

The real problem with willful sin is that ministers are stewards, and it is REQUIRED (not optional) in stewards that a man be faithful. If someone is not faithful in earthly things (marriage, money, time, work, etc.), that person will not be faithful in spiritual things. That will make any pastoral role difficult. But once the man has dealt with his sin and let God deal with his sin, when the man has honestly corrected the error and the issues which led to and followed it, and has established in his life the same principles as Timothy and Titus require, as well as other Scripture, then he may be ready once again to shepherd God's people.

Only the Great Shepherd never sinned. All the other shepherds are under Him, and all have sinned. God does not have degrees of sin, or rightousness.

Do the scriptures indicate if a person gets a divorce and marries another, that they are living in a state of sin? Where does it say that?

I Cor 7 is full of gems on this entire subject. 27b-28a "Art thou loosed from a wife? seek not a wife. But and if thou marry, thou hast not sinned;" If you have been loosed from a wife and married, you have not sinned. This is the age of grace, the rulebook, the canon, of today for the church of the body. We are not the church of Israel. And in the church which we are a part of, there is neither male nor female. God is no respecter of persons. In today's venacular, what is good for the goose is good for the gander, or put another way, If you were loosed from your husband and remarry, you have not sinned.
This is no contradiction to what Jesus said.


Of course God can forgive the sin & will, that is not the point. You spoke of consequences, amazingly you chose to leave consequences out here disobeying, contradicting, the Holy Scriptures.

1Ti 3:2 A bishop then must be blameless, the husband of one wife, vigilant, sober, of good behaviour, given to hospitality, apt to teach;

Tit 1:6 ¶ If any be blameless, the husband of one wife, having faithful children not accused of riot or unruly.

The man that has been divorced & remarried, if his wife is living in the husband of two wife's. Clearly such a man is not qualified to pastor one of Jesus' Churches.

Of course, if its a man made church they can use whosoever they chose, for no matter what they do unless the repent, confess, & turn to God is wrong.

And please remember, this 'Holy Book' was inspired by God, & of course if He says a man must be the husband of one wife to be a pastor that is the way it must be, there is no options left, except to 'trust & obey.'
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Of course God can forgive the sin & will, that is not the point. You spoke of consequences, amazingly you chose to leave consequences out here disobeying, contradicting, the Holy Scriptures.

1Ti 3:2 A bishop then must be blameless, the husband of one wife, vigilant, sober, of good behaviour, given to hospitality, apt to teach;

Tit 1:6 ¶ If any be blameless, the husband of one wife, having faithful children not accused of riot or unruly.

The man that has been divorced & remarried, if his wife is living in the husband of two wife's. Clearly such a man is not qualified to pastor one of Jesus' Churches.

Of course, if its a man made church they can use whosoever they chose, for no matter what they do unless the repent, confess, & turn to God is wrong.

And please remember, this 'Holy Book' was inspired by God, & of course if He says a man must be the husband of one wife to be a pastor that is the way it must be, there is no options left, except to 'trust & obey.'

But if that man is divorced, has the proper divorcement papers from the state he was divorced in, and marries again, technically he is the husband of one wife. He is no longer married to his first wife... they are divorced.
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But if that man is divorced, has the proper divorcement papers from the state he was divorced in, and marries again, technically he is the husband of one wife. He is no longer married to his first wife... they are divorced.

Is that what Scripture says?
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Technically God's Word is what counts, not what is technically right or wrong according to the worldly government & the papers they approve of & or issue. And even after the divorce man remarries, he is the husband to two wife's in the sight of God if his divorce wife is still living. There fore he does not qualify to be a pastor of one of Jesus' Churches, 1 Timothy 3:2 & Titus 1:6, & is not blameless.

Mt 5:32 But I say unto you, That whosoever shall put away his wife, saving for the cause of fornication, causeth her to commit adultery: and whosoever shall marry her that is divorced committeth adultery.

Ro 7:2 For the woman which hath an husband is bound by the law to her husband so long as he liveth; but if the husband be dead, she is loosed from the law of her husband.
Ro 7:3 So then if, while her husband liveth, she be married to another man, she shall be called an adulteress: but if her husband be dead, she is free from that law; so that she is no adulteress, though she be married to another man.

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Art thou bound unto a wife? seek not to be loosed. Art thou loosed from a wife? seek not a wife. But and if thou marry, thou hast not sinned; and if a virgin marry, she hath not sinned. Nevertheless such shall have trouble in the flesh: but I spare you. (1Co 7:27-28)

Clearly, one who has been divorced and remarried has not sinned. So there is no adultery.

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Amazing conclusion.

Mt 5:32 But I say unto you, That whosoever shall put away his wife, saving for the cause of fornication, causeth her to commit adultery: and whosoever shall marry her that is divorced committeth adultery.

Yet it disagrees with the Bible.

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Amazing conclusion.

Mt 5:32 But I say unto you, That whosoever shall put away his wife, saving for the cause of fornication, causeth her to commit adultery: and whosoever shall marry her that is divorced committeth adultery.

Yet it disagrees with the Bible.

But if thou marry, thou hast not sinned. Bible.
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I am not trying to upset anyone. I am sorry if I have, but these are the questions, thoughts, and concerns which people on the forum have. I sort of look at the forums as the modern equal of the way debates were done in Luther's day. We don't nail items on a church door, but we do post them here for debate and discussion, don't we? Or don't we?

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That Matthew 5:32 is a very interesting verse....

But I say unto you, That whosoever shall put away his wife, saving for the cause of fornication, causeth her to commit adultery: and whosoever shall marry her that is divorced committeth adultery. (Mt 5:32)

In what way does divorcing one's wife cause her to commit adultery? It looks like the woman is called an adulteress just because of being divorced. Not because of sexual sin, or remarriage... but because of divorce. Whosoever shall put away his wife... causeth her to commit adultery.

How does it cause her to commit adultery? There are women who have been divorced in their elder years who were never with another man. Yet Jesus says those women were caused to commit adultery.

Could adultery be more than just sexual sin in light of Jesus' words?

Edited by Standing Firm In Christ
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Not a hypothetical situation.

A man (pastor) and woman are married, have 2 teenage children. Family appears solidly Christian, attend a good evangelical church 3 times a week. They are not IFB. The wife seriously thinks about and actively contemplates lesbianism, even after Godly counseling. She then joins a cult and begins (and maintains) a lifestyle of lying and deceit. The wife tries to murder the husband 3 times, and greatly endangers one of the children's life by having her get on the roof of a burning house. She 'hates' her son, and affirms she has considered killing him.

Understanding all of that, at what point, if any, should the man take legal and/or civil action? If he seeks and obtains a divorce, can he never or ever be a pastor again?

Thanks. (Just for the record, my wife and I are happily married, and she can not have children, except God intervene.)

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