Members SeanElvis Posted December 2, 2010 Members Share Posted December 2, 2010 (edited) Well, this is what I heard, and if tha'ts the case, how is the KJV reliable? I'm referring to 1John 5:7 Edited January 28, 2011 by BroMatt Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
Members DennisD Posted December 2, 2010 Members Share Posted December 2, 2010 I don't understand this question. 1 John 5:7 For there are three that bear record in heaven, the Father, the Word, and the Holy Ghost: and these three are one. ? Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
Members John81 Posted December 2, 2010 Members Share Posted December 2, 2010 Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
Administrators Pastor Matt Posted December 2, 2010 Administrators Share Posted December 2, 2010 Well, this is what I heard, and if tha'ts the case, how is the KJV reliable? I'm referring to 1John 5:7 Thanks for the well thought out explanation. I'm just messing with ya, but I would like for you to explain your question. Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
Members Bro Jim Posted December 2, 2010 Members Share Posted December 2, 2010 Do you mean ? Luke 24:13 And, behold, two of them went that same day to a village called Emmaus, which was from Jerusalem about threescore furlongs. Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
Members irishman Posted December 2, 2010 Members Share Posted December 2, 2010 (edited) Well, this is what I heard, and if tha'ts the case, how is the KJV reliable? I'm referring to 1John 5:7"Ye have heard that it was said by them of old time..." (Mt. 5:21, 27, etc.)"But I say unto you..." (Mt. 5:22, 28, 32, etc.) You have heard wrong! Don't listen to every voice in the wind, the KJB IS very reliable. I have heard that too, concerning 1 Jn. 5:7, but it is just as inspired as any other scripture, no matter what we've heard. Edited December 2, 2010 by irishman Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
Members Bro Jim Posted December 2, 2010 Members Share Posted December 2, 2010 Oops showed my, lack of knowledge, he meant the humanist catholic from the 16th century. Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
Members Covenanter Posted December 2, 2010 Members Share Posted December 2, 2010 Well, this is what I heard, and if tha'ts the case, how is the KJV reliable? I'm referring to 1John 5:7 It wasn't in ANY of the available Gk manuscripts, so wasn't preserved in the Gk mss. As it was in the Latin Vulgate, the RCs insisted on its inclusion in Erasmus' printed version - I think the 3rd edition, not the first. Also the end of Revelation only existed in a commentary, & he had to sort out the text from the comments. I'll look for a reference. Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
Members Brother Rick Posted December 2, 2010 Members Share Posted December 2, 2010 (edited) I swear I'm not trying to sound pious here, but I have no trouble putting my faith in every word of the King James Bible, so I don't spend nearly as much time delving into manuscript evidence as I do actually studying the Bible (I had to study this stuff in Bible college to get a grade and I'm glad I don't have to now). What you're referring to is the Johannine Comma controversy. That verse isn't in the older manuscripts; therefore many people don't believe it should be in our Bibles today. One must remember that those same older manuscripts are the ones that the NIV, RSV, NASV, and other corrupt versions come from. We also must remember that the originals do not exist, anywhere. If God promised to preserve His word it's going to be somewhere today, and the KJB has the blessing of God on it like nothing else. That being said, I found THIS LINK. I started to read it, but after a few paragraphs my eyes rolled back into my head in sheer boredom, so I can't vouch for everything in it but it will give you an idea of what this is all about. Edited December 2, 2010 by Rick Schworer Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
Members JerryNumbers Posted December 2, 2010 Members Share Posted December 2, 2010 Thanks for the well thought out explanation. I'm just messing with ya, but I would like for you to explain your question. Maybe its the Elvis in him! Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
Members Crushmaster Posted December 2, 2010 Members Share Posted December 2, 2010 His question made sense to me... But, yes, it's a controversy, as Brother Rick said, for it's not in the older manuscripts. God bless, Joel ><>. 2 Chronicles 7:14. Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
Members irishman Posted December 3, 2010 Members Share Posted December 3, 2010 (edited) It wasn't in ANY of the available Gk manuscripts, so wasn't preserved in the Gk mss. As it was in the Latin Vulgate, the RCs insisted on its inclusion in Erasmus' printed version - I think the 3rd edition, not the first. Also the end of Revelation only existed in a commentary, & he had to sort out the text from the comments. I'll look for a reference. Covenanter, how do you know this? Did you see them? Whose word are you taking as fact? When was the last time you saw a manuscript? The last one I saw was in a high school play! (Not trying to pick a fight, just asking some valid questions) Edited December 3, 2010 by irishman Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
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