Members John81 Posted May 27, 2010 Members Share Posted May 27, 2010 Does anyone else notice a vast difference between these four verses in the NIV and KJB? Comments? Luke 11:1-4 NIV: 11 One day Jesus was praying in a certain place. When he finished, one of his disciples said to him, “Lord, teach us to pray, just as John taught his disciples.” 2 He said to them, “When you pray, say: “ ‘Father,a hallowed be your name, your kingdom come.b 3 Give us each day our daily bread. 4 Forgive us our sins, for we also forgive everyone who sins against us.c And lead us not into temptation.d’ ” Luke 11:1-4 KJB: And it came to pass, that, as he was praying in a certain place, when he ceased, one of his disciples said unto him, Lord, teach us to pray, as John also taught his disciples. 2 And he said unto them, When ye pray, say, Our Father which art in heaven, Hallowed be thy name. Thy kingdom come. Thy will be done, as in heaven, so in earth. 3 Give us day by daya our daily bread. 4 And forgive us our sins; for we also forgive every one that is indebted to us. And lead us not into temptation; but deliver us from evil Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
Members *Light* Posted May 27, 2010 Members Share Posted May 27, 2010 (edited) Yes, the NIV is known for its omission of words from the infallible scripture. To change or omit even the appearance of a letter (tittle) or even the smallest of letters (jot) is to tamper with the Word of God. Why is doing the will of God omitted? and why does it appear as if we have the power to forgive the sins of others? We know that Satan is known for his rebellion and wanting to do things his own way, and for taking scripture out of context. Who's really behind the NIV translation? God Bless! Edited May 27, 2010 by (Omega) Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
Members CPR Posted May 27, 2010 Members Share Posted May 27, 2010 The version of the Lord's Prayer that is usually said in church or in private prayer comes as I have always known and learned as a child comes from the Gospel according to Matthew. It differs slightly from the version found in the Gospel according to Luke: "Our Father, who art in Heaven Hallowed be thy name Thy kingdom come Thy will be done On earth as it is in heaven Give us this day our daily bread And forgive us our trespasses As we forgive those who trespass against us Lead us not into temptation But deliver us from evil For thine is the kingdom The power and the glory For ever and ever Amen." I think I understand basically what you're saying about the NIV translation, though. It is not my preferred translation. Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
Members John81 Posted May 27, 2010 Author Members Share Posted May 27, 2010 I recently heard a pastor who was preaching from the NIV. He began his sermon talking about how much different the Lord's prayer is in Luke as compared to Matthew. Then he spoke a bit about why this may be before going into his sermon. It wasn't until last night that the Holy Ghost brought this to mind and I remembered I had a parallel KJB/NIV. I got that Bible out and looked at the verses side-by-side. In the KJB the Lord's prayer recorded in Luke is little different from that recorded in Matthew while what they have in the NIV is indeed very much different. In looking at the notes in the NIV I saw that the NIV mentions that "some manuscripts" have that which they chose to leave out. Hmmm, why did they leave them out? Why make the Lord's prayer in Luke to become so much different? OBviously doing this doesn't enhance the Word of God, make it more clear or better bring about the unity of Scripture. In fact, leaving out what they did makes the Word appear less clear, possibly inconsistent, less clear and as if there is less unity in Scripture. What a shame this pastor was using the NIV. The main point of his message was good but I know his message would have been so much greater had he been preaching from the KJB where he would have preached upon all that was left out of the NIV. Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
Members arroworchard Posted May 28, 2010 Members Share Posted May 28, 2010 I read one time that the NIV omits enough scripture that the equivalent of the book of Acts is not in the NIV. This is not only the NIV but all that have been translated from the Critical Text. Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
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