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    • Brethren, Our next lesson on the local church will be in 2 Thessalonians 1:1-4 God bless you all. Alan
    • I'm sure cassava flour would be enough, although there is no coconut flavor in the dredge.  The coconut flour does smell a bit coconutty, but it doesn't taste. The recipe I started with uses more cassava anyway. I like coconut, but definitely would not like it with my fish, nor would Randy. This dredge actually is for chicken, but really does work great for fish. Nice thing about it is you can add any spices you might particularly like. For the chicken, I usually add paprika to the dredge.   
    • That sounds good HC. Can it also be done with just the cassava flour?  I ask because my diet has also been changed to not allow carbs., but I do not like coconut at all.
    • I'm on my phone and can't answer in-depth...sorry. The qualifications apply to a MAN...not a child, adolescent, or teenager (in my opinion). That does away with "at any time". The qualifications also are the traits that he is publicly known by...this goes beyond what the man is now...it covers years. Why? Because of how he is known by those not only in the church...but how he is known by those who are "without". It takes a long time for a man to establish his reputation...especially by those who are "without". I know pastors who are popular in my community, but they don't meet the qualifications that God has ordained. Numerous church splits have resulted from these men...hard feelings and bitterness are the results. Many have adopted false doctrine...but they chalk it up to being persecuted...when neither they (nor the churches that elected them) held them to biblical qualifications. 
    • Jim_Alaska, Thank you for pointing out me as the offending poster. I wasn’t sure whom you were speaking of. Going forward I will refrain from using the terms Pharisaical, Phariseism, or any other such terms. I apologize for my rude and contemptible speech. To all, I will attempt to change my approach, and hopefully have a better discussion on this subject of divorce and or a second marriage being a sin, as well as the effects it has on the qualifications of the office of a bishop. I have listed a few questions below, and am seeking the teachings of all that care to answer them. If you feel that some are connected, then please feel free to combine them. Reading other posts on this same subject, I understand that not everyone’s teaching will be 100% the exact same. But please be exhaustive as much as possible to teach me why you see the answers in the light you present it in. 1) When does the accountability of the bishop for ALL of the qualifications go into effect? ·         Please list beside each trait at what point in his life does he become disqualified for not being: 1)      blameless (Example) – The moment he broke any law (God’s or man’s). 2)      the husband of one wife 3)      vigilant 4)      sober 5)      of good behaviour 6)      given to hospitality 7)      apt to teach 8 )      Not given to wine 9)      no striker 10)   not greedy of filthy lucre 11)   but patient 12)   not a brawler 13)   not covetous 14)   One that ruleth well his own house, having his children in subjection with all gravity 15)   Not a novice 16)   have a good report of them which are without 2) What is the meaning of "husband of one wife"? As I see it there are 2 interpretations 1) A man married to one woman his entire life. 2) A man having only one wife while married (i.e. Anti-polygamy). Are there more interpretations and why is the one chosen the correct interpretation? 3) Are there any exceptions (i.e. Death, Desertion, Adultery) for a man that divorced and married another woman to still meet the qualifications? 4) If there are no exceptions, and he is disqualified, what fields of ministry or offices is he allowed to partake in, and what is he allowed to do in said ministries or offices, and what scriptures are used to qualify him for use in those ministries or offices? 5) Was Judas Iscariot a bishop, and which local church gave him his bishoprick? (Acts 1:20) 6) Please clarify the way Christ loving the church means that a man’s marriage is to be a carbon copy or an earthly representation of Christ being married to one church. To me there are very distinct differences between the church and a physical wife. The church does not die, wives do. The church is a city, wives are human beings. The church is spotless, pure, and a virgin, wives are not. A man’s wife has power over her husband’s body; how does that apply to the church having power over Christ’s body? I am just not seeing this being what Paul was saying, but rather that he (the husband) is to love (Feel tender affection for somebody) his wife (the woman to whom a man is married) just as Christ does the church and GIVE (To present or deliver something that he or she owns to another person) himself (his body) for her. I also believe this is why Paul made his statements in Eph. 5:28-29 & 1 Cor 7:4-5. If I am wrong, please show me where my interpretation is off course. 7) Does Matt 5:31-32 and Matt 19:9 apply to the born again believer in the church age? If the answer is yes, please also explain how Matt 5:22-30 applies to the believer today. 8) What is the meaning of 1 Cor 7:27-28? 9) What did Paul mean when he said “All things are lawful unto me, but all things are not expedient: all things are lawful for me, but I will not be brought under the power of any”? (1Cor 6:12) “All things are lawful for me, but all things are not expedient: all things are lawful for me, but all things edify not.”? (1 Cor 10:23) And does this scripture also cross reference to Gal. 5:13?

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